Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 00:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

I’ve often wondered why fans aren’t deployed on GBBO during warm weather? I’ve seen too many desserts melt (and bakers too…). (I live in Pompano Beach and we try to use fans in lieu of AC as much as possible).

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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